©1999,M.Bettoni,CZM,Fachhochschule beider Basel Von: B Merrill <merrillb@crisny.org>
An: Multiple recipients of list <kant-l@bucknell.edu>
Betreff: conforming of objects and knowledge
Datum: Donnerstag, 14. Januar 1999 01:14
Marco,
In applying this query to Kant's philosophy, shouldn't we distinguish
between the conformation which is supposed at the point of the
transcendental deduction and the projection of the categories, and the
conformation which takes place according to Kant's philosophy of science, as
expounded in the appendix to the dialectic? Isn't there a crucial
distinction between the ground of the lawfulness inherent to the categories,
and that supposed by particular empirical laws, gathered (or not!) into
systematic science?
It strikes me that the transit from transcendental idealism to
empirical realism (which you take note of) is, to an important degree,
articulated as the distinction and transit between these two different
conformations.
Bruce Merrill
©1999,M.Bettoni,CZM,Fachhochschule beider Basel